1) The particle here is followed by a definite noun, הַשָּׁמַיִם. Can this particle also be used with an indefinite noun? Explain why.
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1) The answer is no because it is not just a 'direct object marker' but a 'definite direct object marker.' It is possible for a direct object to be indefinite, e.g., "Indians love curry." It is been pointed out that "occasionally את is found before what looks like an indefinite form, but usually where there is clearly a definite meaning and a need to avoid ambiguity" (A.D. Rubin, Studies in Semitic Grammaticalization (Harvard Semitic Studies; Leiden: Brill, 2005), 92). The general rule set out by Hebrew grammarians is that את "can only properly stand before a definite noun, i. e. one which is so either (l) by being a proper name, or (2) having the definite article הָ, or (3) having a word dependent upon it, or (4) having a pronominal suff." (S. P. Tregelles, Hebrew Reading Lessons, (London/New York: Samuel Bagster/Harper & Bros., n.d.), 2; also C. L. Seow, A Grammar for Biblical Hebrew, rev. ed., (Nashville: Abingdon Press, 1995), 98). The word with which it is here (Gen 1:1) used is rendered definite by the prefixed הַ on the next noun, "the heavens."
You may wish to polish up on your את with the following resources:
"Hebrew Grammar - How to use 'et' (את)," Blackboard Hebrew.
Youtube N (Open on Phone)
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